Did 'the' in 'the which' mean anything? references more than 1 language.

I am stupefied that the above would be closed as Language-specific, whereas Why does French use “be” as the auxiliary for a few verbs? and Why did French survive in Canada while being far from France, while other languages didn't (Arabic in Malta, Dutch in South Africa) are not?

Please tell me if I erred, but I feel that some users are closing my questions because of personal antipathy or dislike against me? If so, I am sorry for irritating or offending anyone.


I have reopened the question. Since Jlaweler has answered it already, you may want to copy-paste that as an answer and accept it.

  • +1. Thank you for your benevolence. Before I do so, I will message Prof Lawler because he may wish to do this himself.
    – NNOX Apps
    May 10 '16 at 19:56

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