What happened to "accented velars" in Anatolian? What's going on here?? How come I'm down 15 points?? I'd like some explanation.

| |
  • Hm. I was going to vote to migrate this to Meta, but that option seems to no longer exist. When did that change? – Draconis May 10 at 18:22
  • I’m voting to close this question because this is a meta question to be discussed on meta and not on the main site. – jk - Reinstate Monica May 10 at 18:45
  • I'm voting to migrate it. Did you not find the button? – user6726 May 10 at 18:47
  • @user6726 Ah, now I see it. Seems I was just blind for a minute. – Draconis May 10 at 18:56

Your answer's completely correct, but I found Melchert's description of the developments in Luvian more conclusive—the fact that *k and * have reliably different reflexes in one Anatolian language seems like good proof that they remained distinct in Proto-Anatolian, even if Kloekhorst says they merged in Hittite. So I moved the accepted checkmark.

(I've still upvoted your answer, though, and I don't disagree with any part of it. If you want to add the Luvian evidence to yours, or argue that Melchert's wrong about it, feel free to!)

| |

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .