What happened to "accented velars" in Anatolian? What's going on here?? How come I'm down 15 points?? I'd like some explanation.
Your answer's completely correct, but I found Melchert's description of the developments in Luvian more conclusive—the fact that *k and *ḱ have reliably different reflexes in one Anatolian language seems like good proof that they remained distinct in Proto-Anatolian, even if Kloekhorst says they merged in Hittite. So I moved the accepted checkmark.
(I've still upvoted your answer, though, and I don't disagree with any part of it. If you want to add the Luvian evidence to yours, or argue that Melchert's wrong about it, feel free to!)