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What happened to "accented velars" in Anatolian? What's going on here?? How come I'm down 15 points?? I'd like some explanation.

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  • Hm. I was going to vote to migrate this to Meta, but that option seems to no longer exist. When did that change?
    – Draconis Mod
    May 10, 2020 at 18:22
  • I’m voting to close this question because this is a meta question to be discussed on meta and not on the main site.
    – jk - Reinstate Monica
    May 10, 2020 at 18:45
  • I'm voting to migrate it. Did you not find the button?
    – user6726
    May 10, 2020 at 18:47
  • @user6726 Ah, now I see it. Seems I was just blind for a minute.
    – Draconis Mod
    May 10, 2020 at 18:56

1 Answer 1

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Your answer's completely correct, but I found Melchert's description of the developments in Luvian more conclusive—the fact that *k and *ḱ have reliably different reflexes in one Anatolian language seems like good proof that they remained distinct in Proto-Anatolian, even if Kloekhorst says they merged in Hittite. So I moved the accepted checkmark.

(I've still upvoted your answer, though, and I don't disagree with any part of it. If you want to add the Luvian evidence to yours, or argue that Melchert's wrong about it, feel free to!)

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